How to Use This Practice Set
Work through each set in 35 minutes. Focus on the reasoning, not just the answer — Group 1 tests whether you understand WHY an answer is correct.
Set 1 — Constitutional Framework & Fundamental Rights (15 Questions)
1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution describes India as: 1. Sovereign 2. Socialist 3. Secular 4. Democratic 5. Republic
Which of these terms were ADDED by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976)?
- a) 1 and 5
- b) 2 and 3 ✓
- c) 4 and 5
- d) 1, 2 and 3
The original Preamble (1950) had: Sovereign, Democratic, Republic. "Socialist" and "Secular" were inserted by the 42nd Amendment during Emergency.
2. Which of the following is NOT correctly described as a "Fundamental Right" under the Indian Constitution?
- a) Right to equality before law (Art 14)
- b) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art 32)
- c) Right to Property (Art 31) ✓
- d) Right to Freedom of Religion (Art 25)
Right to Property was originally Art 19(1)(f) and Art 31. It was removed from Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment (1978) and made a legal right under Art 300A.
3. Article 21A (Right to Education) was inserted by which Constitutional Amendment?
- a) 73rd Amendment
- b) 86th Amendment
- c) 86th Amendment ✓
- d) 91st Amendment
86th Amendment (2002) inserted Art 21A (free and compulsory education for 6–14 year olds), amended Art 45 (DPSP), and inserted Art 51A(k) (duty of parents to provide education).
4. The "Basic Structure" doctrine of the Indian Constitution was established in which case?
- a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
- b) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)
- c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) ✓
- d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
5. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available ONLY to Indian citizens and NOT to foreigners? 1. Article 14 — Equality before law 2. Article 19 — Freedom of speech, assembly, movement 3. Article 21 — Protection of life and personal liberty 4. Article 29 — Protection of minorities' cultural/educational interests
- a) 1 and 3
- b) 2 and 3
- c) 2 and 4 ✓
- d) 1, 2 and 4
Articles 14 and 21 apply to ALL persons (including foreigners). Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30 apply only to citizens.
6. A writ of "Mandamus" is issued by courts when:
- a) A person is detained illegally — order to produce before court
- b) A lower court exceeds its jurisdiction
- c) A public authority refuses to perform its legal duty ✓
- d) A court is asked to stay proceedings
Mandamus = "We command" — issued against public officials/bodies to do what they are legally bound to do. Habeas Corpus = for illegal detention.
7. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are: 1. Non-justiciable — cannot be enforced in courts 2. Fundamental to governance 3. Part IV of the Constitution (Articles 36–51) 4. Borrowed from the Irish Constitution
Which statements are correct?
- a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
- c) 2 and 3 only
- d) 1 and 3 only
8. Article 32 is called the "heart and soul of the Constitution" by:
- a) Jawaharlal Nehru
- b) Rajendra Prasad
- c) B.R. Ambedkar ✓
- d) Sardar Patel
9. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A?
- a) To abide by the Constitution and respect national symbols
- b) To develop scientific temper
- c) To vote in elections ✓
- d) To protect and improve natural environment
Voting is not a Fundamental Duty — it is a right and a civic responsibility but not constitutionally mandated. 11 Fundamental Duties were added by 42nd (10 duties) and 86th (1 duty — education for children) amendments.
10. A Constitutional Amendment under Article 368 requires: 1. Special majority in each House of Parliament (2/3 of members present and voting AND majority of total membership) 2. Ratification by at least half the State Legislatures — for certain provisions 3. President's assent is mandatory
All three statements are:
- a) Only 1 is correct
- b) 1 and 3 are correct
- c) All three are correct ✓
- d) 1 and 2 are correct
11. Under which Article does the President of India have the power to issue Ordinances?
- a) Article 112
- b) Article 118
- c) Article 123 ✓
- d) Article 141
Art 123 = Presidential Ordinances (when Parliament not in session). Art 213 = Governor's Ordinance power at state level.
12. The 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) disqualifies a member of Parliament if: 1. He voluntarily gives up party membership 2. He votes against the directions of the party whip 3. He abstains from voting against party direction
Which cause(s) attract disqualification?
- a) 1 only
- b) 1 and 2 only
- c) 1, 2 and 3 ✓
- d) 2 and 3 only
13. Who decides disqualification of members under the Anti-Defection Law (10th Schedule)?
- a) Supreme Court
- b) Election Commission
- c) Speaker of the House ✓
- d) President of India
The Speaker (or Chairman in Rajya Sabha) decides anti-defection cases. SC in Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) upheld this but said Speaker's decision is subject to judicial review.
14. Under Article 356, President's Rule in a state can continue for a maximum of:
- a) 6 months
- b) 1 year
- c) 3 years (with 6-month extensions requiring parliamentary approval) ✓
- d) 5 years
Initially 6 months. Extended by 6-month intervals with Parliamentary approval. Maximum 3 years (extended to 5 years in certain cases — SC/ST issue). 44th Amendment added safeguards.
15. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) deals with Panchayati Raj. It: 1. Added the 11th Schedule with 29 subjects 2. Mandated reservation for SC/ST in proportion to population 3. Fixed 5-year tenure for Panchayat bodies 4. Made the State Finance Commission mandatory
All four statements are:
- a) 1 and 2 only correct
- b) 1, 2 and 3 correct
- c) All four are correct ✓
- d) 2, 3 and 4 only correct
Set 2 — Parliament, President & Judiciary (15 Questions)
16. The President of India is elected by:
- a) All elected members of Parliament
- b) All elected members of Parliament + all state legislators
- c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament + elected members of state Legislative Assemblies ✓
- d) All members of Parliament + all members of state and UT legislatures
Only ELECTED members (not nominated). Elected MLAs of states (not MLCs). Elected MPs of both Houses.
17. Which of the following is INCORRECT about Rajya Sabha?
- a) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
- b) 1/3 members retire every two years
- c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President
- d) Money Bills can be introduced in Rajya Sabha ✓
Money Bills (Art 110) can ONLY be introduced in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations within 14 days.
18. The Joint Sitting of Parliament (Art 108) is presided over by:
- a) President of India
- b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
- c) Speaker of Lok Sabha ✓
- d) Prime Minister
19. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India: 1. Is appointed by the President 2. Audits accounts of Union and State governments 3. Reports submitted to the President/Governor (not Parliament directly) 4. Serves a term of 6 years or 65 years — whichever is earlier
Which are correct?
- a) 1 and 2 only
- b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
- c) 2, 3 and 4 only
- d) 1 and 4 only
20. The Supreme Court of India has "original jurisdiction" over disputes:
- a) Involving any citizen against the state
- b) Between the Union and one or more states, or between states ✓
- c) All matters involving fundamental rights violations
- d) Cases where central laws are challenged
Original jurisdiction (Art 131) = disputes between Centre and states or between states. Art 32 = for FRs (this is original but different). High Courts have original jurisdiction for FRs too (Art 226).
21. Which of the following writs can be issued ONLY against judicial/quasi-judicial bodies?
- a) Mandamus
- b) Certiorari and Prohibition
- c) Certiorari and Prohibition ✓
- d) Quo Warranto
Certiorari (quash a lower court's order) and Prohibition (stop a lower court from exceeding jurisdiction) apply against courts. Mandamus and Quo Warranto apply against public authorities.
22. The concept of "Judicial Review" in India means:
- a) Review of court decisions by higher courts
- b) President's power to review legislation
- c) Power of courts to examine constitutionality of legislation and executive actions ✓
- d) Review of judicial appointments by Parliament
23. The National Emergency (Art 352) in India has been declared how many times?
- a) Once (1962)
- b) Twice (1962 and 1965)
- c) Three times (1962, 1965, 1971) ✓
- d) Four times
1962 (Chinese aggression), 1965 (Pakistan war), 1971 (Bangladesh war). The Emergency of 1975–77 was declared under Art 352 "internal disturbance" — making it the fourth proclamation, but it overlapped with the 1971 emergency which was revoked. Technically 1975 was a separate (4th) invocation.
24. Which Finance Commission recommended the current formula of 41% of central taxes to states?
- a) 13th Finance Commission
- b) 14th Finance Commission
- c) 15th Finance Commission ✓
- d) 16th Finance Commission
14th FC recommended 42%, but Andhra Pradesh bifurcation reduced it to 41% in the 15th FC (NK Singh Commission, 2017–20) recommendation for 2021–26.
25. The Election Commission of India is a: 1. Constitutional body (Art 324) 2. Multi-member body — currently 3 commissioners 3. Chief Election Commissioner can be removed only by impeachment like a Supreme Court judge 4. Appointed by the President of India
Which are correct?
- a) 1 and 4 only
- b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ✓
- d) 1, 2 and 4 only
26. The Governor of a state is:
- a) Elected by the state legislature
- b) Elected by the people of the state
- c) Appointed by the President ✓
- d) Appointed by the Prime Minister
Art 155 — Governor appointed by President. Art 156 — holds office during pleasure of President. Convention: serve 5-year term.
27. Under Article 143, the President of India can seek an "Advisory Opinion" from:
- a) Attorney General of India
- b) Cabinet Committee
- c) Supreme Court ✓
- d) Law Commission
28. Which of the following bodies is NOT a Constitutional body?
- a) Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
- b) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
- c) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) ✓
- d) Finance Commission
NHRC is a statutory body established under Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 — not a constitutional body.
29. The Right to Information Act (2005) covers which of the following?
- a) Only central government offices
- b) Central and state governments but NOT NGOs
- c) Public authorities — government bodies AND NGOs substantially financed by government ✓
- d) Only elected bodies of government
30. Which amendment introduced the "Goods and Services Tax" by inserting Article 246A in the Constitution?
- a) 99th Amendment
- b) 100th Amendment
- c) 101st Amendment ✓
- d) 102nd Amendment
101st Amendment (2016) inserted Art 246A (special power to make GST laws), Art 269A (levy/collection of GST on interstate trade), Art 279A (GST Council). GST came into force July 1, 2017.
Set 3 — Centre-State, Federalism & Recent Developments (10 Questions)
31. The 7th Schedule of the Constitution distributes legislative powers into:
- a) Union List and State List only
- b) Union List, State List, and Concurrent List ✓
- c) Central List, Provincial List, and Residuary
- d) Federal, State, and Local lists
32. Residuary powers (not in any List) vest with:
- a) State Legislatures
- b) Concurrent List — shared between Centre and states
- c) Parliament (Union) ✓
- d) President of India
Art 248 + Union List Entry 97: Residuary powers = Parliament. Unlike USA where residuary powers vest with states.
33. The Sarkaria Commission (1983) was set up to examine:
- a) Centre-state financial relations
- b) Electoral reforms
- c) Centre-state relations (administrative, legislative, financial) ✓
- d) Reorganisation of states on linguistic basis
34. Article 356 (President's Rule) was examined by the Supreme Court in which landmark case?
- a) Kesavananda Bharati case
- b) Maneka Gandhi case
- c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) ✓
- d) Indira Sawhney case
S.R. Bommai case: SC held President's Rule can be subject to judicial review; floor test should be conducted before dismissing state government. Landmark restriction on misuse of Art 356.
35. The NOTA (None of the Above) option was introduced by ECI following a Supreme Court direction in:
- a) 2011
- b) 2013 ✓
- c) 2015
- d) 2009
PUCL v. Union of India (2013) — SC directed ECI to introduce NOTA. First used in state elections (November 2013) and nationally in 2014 general elections.
36. The Electoral Bonds scheme was struck down by the Supreme Court in February 2024 because:
- a) It was passed without 2/3 majority in Parliament
- b) It violated right to privacy under Art 21
- c) It violated right to information (Art 19(1)(a)) as voters could not know who funded political parties ✓
- d) It was declared unconstitutional under Art 14
37. Article 370, which gave special status to Jammu & Kashmir, was abrogated on:
- a) August 5, 2019 — by Presidential Order
- b) November 5, 2019 — by Parliament
- c) August 5, 2019 ✓
- d) February 20, 2020
Presidential Order (CO 272) dated August 5, 2019, rendered Art 370 inoperative. J&K Reorganisation Act 2019 bifurcated state into two UTs.
38. The 103rd Constitutional Amendment provides 10% reservation for:
- a) Scheduled Castes above the poverty line
- b) Other Backward Classes in government jobs only
- c) Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among general (unreserved) category ✓
- d) Minorities in educational institutions
39. Which of the following statements about the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) is correct?
- a) Lokpal is a constitutional body
- b) Prime Minister is completely excluded from Lokpal's jurisdiction
- c) Lokpal can investigate the Prime Minister with restrictions — matters of national security excluded ✓
- d) Lokpal is appointed by a committee headed by the CJI
Lokpal is a statutory body. PM can be investigated for matters OTHER than national security, international relations, security matters. Appointed by President on recommendation of a selection committee.
40. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes derive their powers from:
- a) Parliamentary Acts
- b) Constitutional provisions (Art 338 and Art 338A respectively) ✓
- c) Presidential Orders
- d) Both parliamentary acts and constitutional provisions
Set 4 — Tamil Nadu Administration & Miscellaneous Polity (10 Questions)
41. The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has how many constituencies?
- a) 196
- b) 224
- c) 234 ✓
- d) 240
42. The District Collector in Tamil Nadu is under the administrative control of which department?
- a) Finance Department
- b) Home Department
- c) Revenue and Disaster Management Department ✓
- d) General Administration Department
43. Panchayati Raj in Tamil Nadu operates at how many tiers?
- a) Two tiers
- b) Three tiers ✓
- c) Four tiers
- d) Single tier
Village Panchayat → Panchayat Union (Block Panchayat) → District Panchayat — three tiers as mandated by the 73rd Amendment.
44. The Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (TNPSC) is constituted under:
- a) Tamil Nadu Civil Services Act
- b) Article 315 of the Constitution ✓
- c) Tamil Nadu Government Servants Act
- d) Presidential notification
45. Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of courts in Tamil Nadu?
- a) Village Court → District Court → High Court → Supreme Court
- b) Subordinate Courts → District Courts → High Court → Supreme Court ✓
- c) Munsif Court → Sessions Court → High Court → Supreme Court
- d) Village Court → Taluk Court → District Court → Supreme Court
46. The State Human Rights Commission in Tamil Nadu is constituted under:
- a) Constitutional provision (Art 338)
- b) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 ✓
- c) Tamil Nadu State Human Rights Act, 2000
- d) Presidential Order
47. How many Lok Sabha constituencies does Tamil Nadu have?
- a) 36
- b) 39 ✓
- c) 40
- d) 42
48. The "Two-Party system" in Tamil Nadu politics refers historically to competition between:
- a) INC and BJP
- b) DMK and AIADMK ✓
- c) DMK and INC
- d) INC and Communist parties
49. Which amendment extended reservation for SC/ST in Parliament and state legislatures by another 10 years?
- a) 99th Amendment
- b) 102nd Amendment
- c) 103rd Amendment
- d) 104th Amendment ✓
104th Amendment (2020) extended SC/ST reservation in Parliament and state assemblies by 10 years (to 2030). It also removed the reservation for Anglo-Indians.
50. The Governor of Tamil Nadu is appointed by the President under Article 155. Which of the following is NOT correct about a Governor?
- a) Must be a citizen of India
- b) Must have completed 35 years of age
- c) Must not be a member of Parliament or state legislature
- d) Must be a resident of the state in which they are appointed ✓
Governors are usually appointed from OUTSIDE the state — it is a constitutional convention. There is no requirement to be a resident of that state.
Board Exam Tips — Polity
- Basic Structure = Kesavananda Bharati 1973 (not Golak Nath which was overruled)
- 42nd Amendment = "Mini Constitution" — Socialist + Secular in Preamble, Fundamental Duties added
- Money Bills = ONLY in Lok Sabha (Art 110); Rajya Sabha has 14 days to return
- CAG = Art 148; Finance Commission = Art 280; UPSC = Art 315; ECI = Art 324
- President's Rule = Art 356; reviewed in S.R. Bommai case (1994)
- NOTA = 2013; Electoral Bonds struck down = February 2024
- 101st Amendment = GST (2016); 103rd = EWS 10% (2019); 104th = SC/ST reservation extended (2020)
- TN Legislative Assembly = 234 seats; TN Lok Sabha = 39 seats